Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 01:20

You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Fossils show colonies of reptiles lived communally 250 million years ago - Phys.org
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Potential measles exposure in Bernalillo, Sandoval and Santa Fe counties - KOAT
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.